1. In a sense, I think the verification theory of meaning could be accused of committing the descriptive fallacy because of the fact that it "is determined by the way in which it can be verified". Descriptive fallacy revolves around the notion of having truth values, because the verification theory can be seen as being tested by empirical observation, there might be a truth value or lack of one. Thus allowing a descriptive fallacy because of verification.
2. In another sense, Austin's performative utterances avoid committing this fallacy by having utterance not have truth values in normal sense such that he says "felicitous or infelicitous."(Austin, 1970 p.234). The utterances also do not describe or report something, but rather "doing" some action, which avoid the descriptive fallacy because it is not describing something with a value.
3. When J.L Austin says that utterances, such as for my made up example, "Do them!" [A commanding B to wash the dishes] there is the stipulation that it has to be interpreted as such of doing an action for it to have any meaning. How does Austin reply to context discrepancies?
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